Pick m>1 in Z. Look at m+1 numbers 0,d,2d,…,md and their decimal (fractional) parts in [0,1).
kd=ak+εk with ak∈Z,ak≥0, and 0≤εk≤1.
Break up [0,1) into the m intervals [0,m1), [m1,m2), …, [mm−1,1).
The m+1 numbers ε0,ε1,ε2,…,εm in [0,1) lie in these m intervals so the pigeonhole principle implies that some εk,εℓ in the same[mj,mj+1) for some j=0,1,…,m−1. Without loss of generality, k>ℓ.
kd−ak=εk and ℓd−aℓ=εℓ are in [mj,mj+1), so 0≤∣εk−εℓ∣<m1.
For each m∈Z+ we found an x,y∈Z+ such that y<m and ∣x−yd∣<m1<y1.
Note ∣x−yd∣>0 since d∈Q.
Pick m′∈Z+ such that m′1<∣x−yd∣. Apply argument to get ∣x′−y′d∣<m′1,y′<m′<y′1, etc, etc. □
Remark
Try solving x2−61y2=1 by x2=61y2+1 and y=1,2,3,… . Good luck…
Claim
We know by lemma that ∣x−yd∣<y1 infinitely often in Z+.
Claim:∣x−yd∣<y1⟹∣x2−dy2∣<2d+1.
x=x−yd+yd≤∣x−yd∣+yd<y1+yd≤1+yd. Also see x≤yd+1 by picture in proof of the lemma (still don’t have a good way to do diagrams…black box this I guess).
Infinitely many (x,y) in Z+ such that ∣x−yd∣<y1→x2−dy2= integer with absolute value ≤2d+1, which means there are finitely many possibilities.
Pigeonhole principle ⟹ there’s M∈Z with ∣M∣≤2d+1 that is x2−dy2 with ∣x−yd∣<y1 infinitely often.
For all these x,y∈Z+ where x2−dy2=M, consider pairs (xmod∣M∣,ymod∣M∣), which gives ∣M∣2 such options.
Since we have infinitely many x,y∈Z+ with x2−dy2=M, by pigeonhole principle among these some mod∣M∣ reduction (xmod∣M∣,ymod∣M∣) occurs more than once:
There are pairwise-distinct x1,y1,x2,y2 in Z+ such that x12−dy12=M, x22−dy22=M.
x1≡x2mod∣M∣→x1=x2+Ms for some s∈Z.
y1≡y2mod∣M∣→y1=y2+Mt for some t∈Z.
Could y be 0? Then x=±1, so x1+y1d=(x2+y2d)(±1)=±(x2+y2d)x1,x2,y1,y2 in Z+⟹x1=±x2,y1=±y2 (same sign)
⟹x1=−x2,y1=−y2.
Thus x1=x2 and y1=y2, which violates how we picked x1,x2,y1,y2.